Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 30.06.2025 09:38
There's no rule.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
You'll usually find your answer there.
What are some popular AI tools used for SEO?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Red Sox rookie addresses alleged false claims about father’s background - Boston Herald
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Has Pope Francis signed a document that gay men can now become priests?
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.